AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC)
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Vendor
AAPC
Certification
Medical Coding & Billing
Content
197 Qs
Status
Verified
Updated
1 day ago
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Exam Overview
The AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) credential is the gold standard for medical coding in physician office settings. Achieving CPC certification demonstrates a comprehensive understanding of CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and ICD-10-CM codes, along with medical terminology, anatomy, and compliance regulations. This certification is crucial for professionals seeking to validate their expertise in accurately transforming healthcare services into billable codes, ensuring proper reimbursement and preventing claim denials. It significantly enhances career opportunities, elevates earning potential, and establishes you as a credible, indispensable asset in any healthcare organization, from private practices to large hospital systems. The CPC is a testament to your commitment to excellence and ethical coding practices.
Questions
100 multiple-choice questions
Passing Score
70% (70 correct answers)
Duration
4 hours (240 minutes)
Difficulty
Intermediate
Level
Professional
Skills Measured
Career Path
Target Roles
Common Questions
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Free Study Guide Samples
Previewing updated CPC bank (5 Questions).
A patient is seen at the doctor's office for nausea, vomiting, and sharp right lower abdominal pain. CT scan of the abdomen is ordered. Labs come back indicating an increased WBC count with review of the abdominal CT scan. The physician determines the patient has a ruptured appendicitis. The physician schedules an appendectomy and takes the patient to the operating room. The appendix is severed from the intestines and removed via scope inserted through an umbilical incision. What CPT and diagnosis codes are reported?
Correct Option: A
✅
Reasoning: The procedure describes a laparoscopic appendectomy for ruptured appendicitis, making CPT code 44970 appropriate. K35.32 accurately represents acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis and rupture, directly matching the physician's definitive diagnosis. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:
- Option B is incorrect: Incorrectly includes symptom codes (R11.2, R10.31) which are superseded by the definitive diagnosis K35.32 for surgical coding.
- Option C is incorrect: Uses CPT 44960 for open appendectomy and K35.80 for unspecified appendicitis; both contradict the laparoscopic approach and ruptured diagnosis.
- Option D is incorrect: Uses CPT 44950 for open, non-ruptured appendicitis, and K35.890 for other appendicitis with generalized peritonitis; both are incorrect.
A patient suffers a ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm requiring emergent endovascular repair. An aorto-aortic tube endograft is positioned in the aorta and a balloon dilation is performed at the proximal and distal seal zones of the endograft. The balloon angioplasty is performed for endoleak treatment.
What CPT code does the vascular surgeon use to report the procedure?
Correct Option: B
✅ **34702 **
Reasoning: CPT code 34702 describes the endovascular repair of a ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm using an aorto-aortic tube endograft. The scenario precisely matches these criteria. Balloon angioplasty at the seal zones during initial EVAR is bundled into this code. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:
- Option A is incorrect: Code 34701 is for an unruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm using an aorto-aortic tube endograft. The patient's aneurysm is ruptured.
- Option C is incorrect: Code 34707 is for an unruptured aneurysm using a graft type other than tube, modular bifurcated, or aorto-uni-iliac/aorto-unifemoral. The aneurysm is ruptured, and the graft is a tube.
- Option D is incorrect: Code 34708 is for a ruptured aneurysm but using a graft type other than tube, modular bifurcated, or aorto-uni-iliac/aorto-unifemoral. The scenario specifies an aorto-aortic tube endograft.
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?
Correct Option: C
✅
Reasoning: The Office of Inspector General (OIG) is the primary federal agency responsible for issuing compliance program guidance for various healthcare providers, including physician practices. These guidances outline elements for voluntary compliance programs to prevent fraud and abuse in federal healthcare programs. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:
- Option A is incorrect: CMS administers Medicare/Medicaid and sets payment policies but does not issue comprehensive compliance program guidance for voluntary programs in the same way as OIG.
- Option B is incorrect: The AMA is a professional organization, not a governmental entity that issues official compliance program guidance to form the regulatory basis for provider practices.
- Option D is incorrect: OCR enforces HIPAA privacy and security rules and civil rights laws. While crucial for compliance in specific areas, it does not issue broad compliance program guidance for overall fraud and abuse prevention.
A 5-year-old is brought to the QuickCare in the ED to repair two lacerations: a 3 cm laceration on her right arm and 2 cm laceration on her nose. Her arm is repaired with a simple one-layer closure with sutures. Her nose is repaired with a simple repair using tissue adhesive, 2-cyanoacrylate.
How are the repairs reported?
Correct Option: D
✅
Reasoning: The 3 cm arm laceration (extremity) is a simple repair coded with 12002 (2.6-7.5 cm). The 2 cm nose laceration (face) is a simple repair coded with 12011 (2.5 cm or less). As these repairs are in distinct anatomical groupings, they are reported separately. Modifier -59 indicates 12011 as a distinct procedural service. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:
- Option A is incorrect: 12013 represents simple repair of the face, 7.6 cm to 12.5 cm. This does not match either the length or location of the patient's lacerations.
- Option B is incorrect: 12032 and 12041 are codes for intermediate repair of lacerations. The clinical scenario specifies both repairs as "simple."
- Option C is incorrect: 12002 only accounts for the 3 cm arm laceration. It fails to report the separate 2 cm nose laceration, underreporting the services provided.
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?
Correct Option: C
✅
Reasoning: Code 10005 reports FNA biopsy with ultrasound guidance for the initial lesion. Code 10006 reports FNA biopsy with ultrasound guidance for each additional lesion. With three nodules aspirated under ultrasound, 10005 for the first and 10006 x 2 for the subsequent two is correct. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:
- Option A is incorrect: 76942 is for imaging guidance. Under current CPT rules, imaging guidance is inherent and bundled into the new FNA codes (10005-10012) and should not be separately reported.
- Option B is incorrect: Code 10006 is designated for additional lesions. The initial lesion always requires the primary FNA code (10005) when ultrasound guidance is used, not 10006.
- Option D is incorrect: Codes 10021 and 10004 are incorrect. 10021 is deleted. 10004 is for FNA without imaging guidance, while the scenario specifies ultrasound guidance. 76942 is also bundled.
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