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Check Point Certified Security Administrator R82 (156-215.82)

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Vendor

Check Point

Certification

Core Certification

Content

189 Qs

Status

Verified

Updated

11 hours ago

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Exam Overview

The Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R82 certification is an essential credential for IT professionals aiming to master the foundational aspects of Check Point's leading cybersecurity solutions. Achieving CCSA R82 demonstrates a robust understanding of deploying, configuring, and managing Check Point Security Gateways and Management Servers in enterprise environments. This certification validates your ability to implement comprehensive security policies, protect networks from advanced threats, and ensure secure access for users. It is a critical stepping stone for career advancement in network security, providing the expertise to safeguard organizational assets and build a strong foundation for further specialization with the Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) certification.

Questions

90-100

Passing Score

700/1000

Duration

90 Minutes

Difficulty

Intermediate

Level

Professional

Skills Measured

Deployment and Initial Configuration: Installing and configuring Security Management Servers and Security Gateways, initial setup using SmartConsole, and understanding the Check Point architecture.
Security Policy Management: Creating and managing rule bases, understanding implied rules, implementing NAT (Network Address Translation), and configuring Application Control and URL Filtering.
VPNs and User Access: Implementing Site-to-Site VPNs, configuring Remote Access VPNs, and managing user access through authentication and identity awareness.
Threat Prevention Introduction: Understanding and configuring basic Threat Prevention components such as IPS, Anti-Bot, and Anti-Virus blades to defend against common threats.
Monitoring, Logging, and Reporting: Utilizing SmartEvent and SmartLog for monitoring security events, generating reports, and basic troubleshooting of connectivity and policy issues.

Career Path

Target Roles

Security Administrator Network Engineer Security Analyst

Common Questions

Is the material up to date?

Yes. We update our question bank weekly to match the latest Check Point standards. You get free updates for 90 days.

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Free Study Guide Samples

Previewing updated 156-215.82 bank (38 Questions).

QUESTION 1

An administrator wants to identify which users are generating the most security events.

Which SmartConsole feature provides this insight?

A
Track Options
B
Log Indexing
C
Alerts
D
Tops

Correct Option: D

✅ Option D (Correct) Reasoning: The 'Tops' view in Check Point SmartConsole's Logs & Monitor tab is specifically designed to display statistical insights, such as top users, sources, destinations, and services generating the most security events or traffic. This directly addresses the administrator's need to identify users with the highest event generation.

❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:


Option A is incorrect: Track Options (e.g., Log, Alert) are rule base settings that define actions for matched traffic, not a feature for summarizing top event generators.

Option B is incorrect: Log Indexing is a backend process that enables faster log searching and analysis, but it is not a direct SmartConsole feature for displaying 'top users.'

Option C is incorrect: Alerts are notifications triggered by specific log patterns. While useful for critical events, alerts themselves do not provide a summarized view of 'top users' generating the most events.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81.20/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/topics-SMG/Monitoring-overview.htm
QUESTION 2

Select the correct option available in Tops in SmartConsole Logs view.

A
Top Users
B
Top Hosts
C
Top Gateways
D
Top Locations

Correct Option: A

✅ Option A (Correct) Reasoning: The Check Point SmartConsole Logs & Monitor view includes a 'Tops' section designed for quick insights. 'Top Users' is a standard and prominent category within this section, providing analytics on user activity based on Identity Awareness data. This helps identify which users are generating the most traffic or triggering specific security policies.❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option B is incorrect: While related to traffic sources and destinations, 'Top Hosts' is not a direct category. Instead, SmartConsole offers 'Top Sources' and 'Top Destinations' to analyze host activity.

Option C is incorrect: 'Top Gateways' is not a 'Tops' option in the Logs view. You typically select a specific gateway, then view its associated 'Tops' data like users or applications.

Option D is incorrect: 'Top Locations' is not a primary or standard 'Tops' category explicitly listed in the SmartConsole Logs view.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityGateway_AdminGuide/topics-sgag/Logs-and-Monitor-Overview.htm
QUESTION 3

What is the effect of enabling “Shared Layer” in an Inline Layer?

A
It enables NAT translation
B
It disables the layer in other policies
C
It restricts access to the layer
D
It allows the layer to be used in multiple rules and policies

Correct Option: D

✅ Option D (Correct) Reasoning: Enabling 'Shared Layer' allows a layer, once defined, to be reused in multiple policy packages or within different rules across various security policies. This promotes modularity, consistency, and simplifies policy management by avoiding redundant configurations.❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option A is incorrect: Shared Layers are about policy structure and reusability, not NAT translation. NAT is a separate security feature configured within rules or objects.

Option B is incorrect: The purpose of a Shared Layer is to enable its use across multiple policies, not to disable it.

Option C is incorrect: Shared Layers enhance reusability and accessibility for policy administrators across different policies, not restrict access to the layer itself.



Reference: https://support.checkpoint.com/results/sk/sk112702
QUESTION 4

Select the most correct statement about policy types.

A
IPS Threat Cloud Protections are included in Access Control Policy. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot and SandBlast are included in the Threat Prevention Policy
B
Access Control Policy includes features like Firewall, Application Control and URL Filtering, IPS Threat Cloud Protections
C
NAT policy is a subset of Access Control Policy
D
Application Control is included in Access Control Policy. URL Filtering is included in the Threat Prevention Policy

Correct Option: B

✅ Option B (Correct) Reasoning: The Access Control Policy layer in Check Point includes the Firewall for basic packet filtering, Application Control for managing application usage, and URL Filtering for controlling access to websites. The initial part of this statement accurately lists these key features of Access Control. The subsequent mention of IPS Threat Cloud Protections is incorrect as IPS belongs to the Threat Prevention policy layer, but the comprehensive and correct identification of the core Access Control features makes this the most correct option. ❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option A is incorrect: IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and its Threat Cloud Protections are part of the Threat Prevention policy layer, not Access Control. While Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, and SandBlast (Threat Emulation/Extraction) are correctly placed in Threat Prevention, the initial miscategorization of IPS makes the statement incorrect.

Option C is incorrect: NAT policy is a separate and distinct policy layer in Check Point, applied before the Access Control Policy, but it is not a subset of Access Control Policy. They are parallel policy layers with different functions.

Option D is incorrect: While Application Control is correctly included in the Access Control Policy, URL Filtering is also a feature of the Access Control Policy, not the Threat Prevention Policy. Threat Prevention focuses on advanced threat protection like IPS, Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, and SandBlast.



Reference: https://support.checkpoint.com/results/sk/sk108846
QUESTION 5

What happens to packets if Explicit Default Rule is missing?

A
The Implicit Cleanup Rule is applied.
B
It depends on the Post NAT Rule.
C
It depends on the matching feature located after the Access Control policy.
D
Nothing happens as there is no matching rule.

Correct Option: A

✅ Option A (Correct) Reasoning: In Check Point Security Gateways, if no explicit rule in the Access Control policy matches a packet, the Implicit Cleanup Rule (also known as the Implied Drop Rule) is applied. This rule is a default, unchangeable rule that drops all traffic not explicitly allowed by preceding rules.❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option B is incorrect: Post NAT rules are processed after the Access Control policy. However, the fundamental handling of unmatched packets in the Access Control layer relies on the Implicit Cleanup Rule, not Post NAT rules directly.

Option C is incorrect: While other features exist after Access Control, the core mechanism for handling packets that don't match any explicit access rule is the Implicit Cleanup Rule, which is part of the Access Control policy itself.

Option D is incorrect: This is incorrect because something does happen. Packets that don't match an explicit rule are not simply ignored; they are dropped by the Implicit Cleanup Rule, which is an active policy component.



Reference: https://support.checkpoint.com/results/sk/sk90150
QUESTION 6

What is a Security Policy?

A
A collection of rules and settings that control network traffic and enforce the organization guidelines for data protection.
B
This is stored on the Security Gateway and enforced by the Security Management Server.
C
This is a written policy which has to conform with the Regulatory Compliance standards.
D
This is stored on the Security Management Server and enforced by the log server.

Correct Option: A

✅ Option A (Correct) Reasoning: A Check Point Security Policy is fundamentally a collection of rules and settings defined in SmartConsole that dictate how network traffic is inspected and handled, ensuring adherence to an organization's security guidelines and protecting data.❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option B is incorrect: The Security Policy is stored and configured on the Security Management Server, but it is enforced by the Security Gateways, not by the Management Server.

Option C is incorrect: While a technical security policy should align with written organizational and compliance policies, 'Security Policy' in Check Point specifically refers to the configured rules within the management system, not just a document.

Option D is incorrect: The Security Policy is indeed stored on the Security Management Server, but its enforcement is carried out by the Security Gateways, not the log server, which is responsible for collecting and storing logs.



Reference: https://support.checkpoint.com/results/sk/sk97638
QUESTION 7

What is the primary purpose of SmartConsole Objects?

A
To provide out-of-the-box threat prevention
B
To monitor user activity
C
To manage network traffic
D
To simplify and enhance cybersecurity management

Correct Option: D

✅ Option D (Correct) Reasoning: SmartConsole Objects are fundamental building blocks that abstract network elements, services, and users. This abstraction simplifies policy creation, enhances consistency, and streamlines overall cybersecurity management within the Check Point environment by providing reusable components for security rules.❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:

Option A is incorrect: Objects are used to configure threat prevention policies, but their primary purpose is not to provide threat prevention functionality directly. They are policy components.

Option B is incorrect: Monitoring user activity is typically performed by logging and SmartEvent. Objects define entities within policies, not the monitoring mechanism itself.

Option C is incorrect: Objects enable the definition of rules that manage network traffic. However, the security gateway, not the objects themselves, directly manages the traffic based on these rules.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/Content/Topics-SMG/SmartConsole-Overview.htm
QUESTION 8

How could you benefit from exporting a SmartConsole object to a CSV file?

A
To integrate object into Third Party Security Systems such as FortiManager.
B
You can use it in a script. For example, batch import to a different Quantum Security environment.
C
To get RADIUS Accounting information based on the utilization of those objects.
D
For saving the information as inventory information.

Correct Option: B

✅ Option B (Correct) Reasoning: Exporting SmartConsole objects to a CSV file allows for data manipulation outside SmartConsole. This structured data can then be used in scripts to automate tasks, such as performing a batch import of objects into another Check Point Quantum Security Management environment, facilitating migration or standardization.

❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:


Option A is incorrect: Integrating Check Point objects directly into third-party security systems like FortiManager typically requires specific APIs or connectors, not a raw CSV export of SmartConsole objects.

Option C is incorrect: RADIUS Accounting information is related to user authentication and resource utilization logs, which are distinct from exporting configuration objects from SmartConsole.

Option D is incorrect: While the CSV contains inventory-like information, option B describes a more direct, powerful, and actionable benefit related to scripting and automation for security management.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/APIs/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_API_Reference/topics/Working_With_Objects.htm
QUESTION 9

What is the main purpose of objects in SmartConsole?

A
They are essential for defining security policies, network topologies, and other network configurations.
B
The objects represent potential targets of a DoS attack.
C
The objects serve as a target of an Access Control Policy.
D
The objects are items which has to be placed in the Track column of a security policy.

Correct Option: A

✅ Option A (Correct) Reasoning: Objects (such as hosts, networks, and services) are the fundamental building blocks in Check Point SmartConsole. They are essential for defining all network entities and resources, which are then utilized to construct security policies, network topologies, NAT rules, VPNs, and other critical security configurations.
❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:


Option B is incorrect: While network objects can represent potential targets of attacks, their primary purpose in SmartConsole is to define network entities for inclusion in security policies, not merely to identify DoS targets.

Option C is incorrect: Objects are used as sources, destinations, and services within Access Control Policy rules. They are components that the policy acts upon, not the 'target' of the policy in its entirety.

Option D is incorrect: The Track column in a security policy specifies the logging or alerting action (e.g., Log, Alert) to be taken when a rule is matched. Objects are placed in the Source, Destination, or Service columns, not the Track column.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81.20/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81.20_Security_Management_AdminGuide/topics-SMG/Objects.htm
QUESTION 10

What provides the trusted client option in SmartConsole?

A
IP address(es) allowed to connect to the Gaia Portal
B
IP address(es) allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole
C
IP address(es) allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using ssh
D
IP address(es) allowed to connect to the Security Gateway(s)

Correct Option: B

✅ Option B (Correct) Reasoning: The 'Trusted Clients' feature in SmartConsole is used to specify the IP addresses or IP address ranges from which administrators are allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole.
❌ Why the other choices are incorrect:


Option A is incorrect: The Gaia Portal's access is configured separately, typically via Gaia OS network access settings, not through SmartConsole's 'Trusted Clients' option.

Option C is incorrect: SSH access to the Security Management Server is governed by different access controls, such as SSH access policies or user shell settings, not the 'Trusted Clients' for SmartConsole.

Option D is incorrect: SmartConsole's 'Trusted Clients' option defines access to the Security Management Server, not to the Security Gateway(s). Gateway access is controlled by firewall rules and VPN settings.



Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/topics-smg/SmartConsole-Security.htm
QUESTION 11

What are the key components that make up the Check Point Three-Tier Architecture?

A
Gaia WebUI Portal, Security Management and Security Gateway installed together on same server
B
Security Dashboard, Management Database Server, Firewall
C
Web Security Console, Log Server, Firewall
D
SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

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QUESTION 12

When Accounting is enabled what is the time interval the logs are being updated?

A
The log is updated in 10-minute intervals.
B
The log update interval has to be specified as a firewall kernel parameter.
C
The log is updated in 10-minute intervals or if 20 MB of log data is collected.
D
The log update interval varies upon the queued user mode processes on the Management Servers, such as FWD, CPD, CPM.

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QUESTION 13

Select the correct description of the Outbound HTTPS Inspection.

A
It protects internal servers by Man in the Middle style interception
B
It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by an internal users
C
It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by both internal users and hosts on the Internet
D
It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by hosts on the Internet

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QUESTION 14

Which of the following can be installed on a Windows Server to acquire identities?

A
Identity Acquisition
B
AD Collaboration
C
Identity query tool
D
Identity collector

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QUESTION 15

What information does the Accounting option in Logs provide?

A
The Accounting option records the number of times the same type of connection has been made in the last 24 hours (configurable) by default
B
Enabling the Accounting option shows the amount of data passed in the connection including upload bytes, download bytes and browse time
C
The Accounting option provides user accountability by associating a user identity with every log record
D
The Accounting option tracks the amount of time required by the Firewall to process and pass the connection

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QUESTION 16

What is the benefit to use Log Indexing?

A
It allows faster queries
B
The logs will consume less disk space
C
By indexing the log entries, you can get the whole time line of an infection of end entities
D
Log entries are checked for duplicates, which are then deleted due to space constraints

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QUESTION 17

During a routine audit, an administrator needs to review which users made changes to the security policy. Which log type should be reviewed?

A
Security Logs
B
Audit Logs
C
Traffic Logs
D
Compliance Logs

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QUESTION 18

What type of logs record administrative actions and changes within the security management, such as policy modifications, user logins, and configuration changes, essential for tracking administrative activities and ensuring accountability?

A
Administration Logs
B
Audit Logs
C
Security Event Logs
D
Compliance Detailed Logs

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QUESTION 19

Which SmartConsole feature allows to filter logs using predefined or custom queries?

A
Log Catalog
B
Query Search
C
Alert Configuration
D
Track Options

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QUESTION 20

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway, the Security Gateway checks it against the rules in the Ordered Layers. Where does the implied Policy (Implied rules) get checked and enforced?

A
Implied rules First Rules apply to the first Ordered Layer in the Access Control policy. Implied rules Before last and Last are applied only to the last Ordered Layer in the list.
B
Implied rules apply to each layer in the Access Control policy.
C
Implied rules apply only to the first Ordered Layer only in the Access Control policy.
D
Implied rules apply only to the first Ordered Layer in the Access Control policy but if there is an Inline Layer then the Implied rules are checked again if the parent rule is matched and before the Inline Layer is checked.

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QUESTION 21

Select the correct order of Enforcement for Ordered Layers.

A
When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Accept, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules and accepts the packet.
B
When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Drop, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in current Layer and continues to check rules in the next Ordered Layer
C
When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Drop, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet
D
When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Accept, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in current Layer and continues to check rules in the previous Ordered Layer

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QUESTION 22

What is a primary benefit of NAT?

A
Changing your source IP address hitting internet web servers randomly to hide your real identity for security reasons.
B
Security - Hides internal IP addresses behind a public IP address which prevents the internal hosts from being exposed to the internet.
C
Business Continuity - If only a small amount of IP addresses were allowed to access a particular resource, you can change your source IP address to overcome this limitation.
D
Accessibility - In a IPSec VPN environment, you can access resources with private IP addresses by assigning respective public IP addresses.

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QUESTION 23

The Security Gateway uses Implied and Explicit rules to determine whether connections are allowed or denied. Where can the administrator view the Implied rules?

A
SmartConsole > MANAGE & SETTINGS > Blades > Firewall > Implied rules
B
Use the command fw stat --implied-rules or the CLISH command show security-gateway implied-rules
C
SmartConsole > SECURITY POLICIES > Actions > Implied rules
D
The Implied rules cannot be viewed in the SmartConsole. They are hidden and are there to allow Control Connections, including policy installation and log traffic.

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QUESTION 24

What best describes the capability of the anti-bot blade?

A
Protection against infections from undiscovered exploits
B
Pre-infection detection
C
Comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic
D
Post-infection detection

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QUESTION 25

Select one of the Common Types of Policies.

A
Content Awareness
B
Application & URL Filtering
C
Firewall
D
Access Control

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QUESTION 26

What is a best practice when creating custom objects in SmartConsole?

A
Use inconsistent naming conventions
B
Edit default objects directly
C
Clone default objects and edit the clone
D
Avoid using groups

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QUESTION 27

What are the valid types of Administrator Accounts?

A
Gaia account, Operating system account, SmartConsole account
B
System account, Security Management Server account, SmartConsole account
C
Gaia account, Security Management Server account, SmartConsole account
D
Expert account, Security Management Server account, SmartConsole account

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QUESTION 28

What are Trusted Clients?

A
This is a list of Check Point customers considered trustworthy (such as Microsoft, Adobe, Apple, Amazon and others).
B
This is a definition of Client IP addresses allowed to connect to the Security Management server using SmartConsole.
C
This is a list of partners of Check Point also known as OPSEC companies.
D
This is a group of RemoteAccess Users with User Certificates not yet expired nor revoked.

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QUESTION 29

What is a best practice when naming a session in SmartConsole?

A
Use complex passwords
B
Limit the use of Super User accounts
C
Assign roles based on least privilege
D
Give the session a name and brief description

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QUESTION 30

Which feature / blade can be used on both Check Point servers; the Security Management server for monitoring and on Security Gateway for enforcing Access Control Policy rules?

A
Application Control and URL Filtering
B
Identity Awareness
C
Layer 8
D
NAC

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QUESTION 31

With URL Filtering you can:

A
Control employee application access
B
Control employee Internet access to inappropriate and illicit websites
C
Control employee intranet access to internal web sites
D
Control employee file access

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QUESTION 32

What is a benefit of https inspection?

A
Blocking sites
B
Filtering malicious content
C
Controlling bandwidth
D
Monitoring applications

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QUESTION 33

You are using a rule to block traffic to a specific https site. However, traffic is not blocked as expected during the first attempts to the site. It will be blocked later. What is the most likely reason?

A
Categorization is in fail close mode and the requests are not allowed until the categorization is complete.
B
Categorization is in hold mode and the requests are not allowed until the categorization is complete.
C
Categorization is in Background mode and the requests are allowed until the categorization is complete.
D
Categorization is in fail open mode and the requests are allowed until the categorization is complete.

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QUESTION 34

What is the primary benefit of HTTPS Inspection in a security environment?

A
It enables inspection of encrypted traffic for threats
B
It replaces SSL/TLS with a proprietary protocol
C
It blocks all HTTPS traffic by default
D
It accelerates encrypted traffic

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QUESTION 35

Which process receives identity data from identity sources and organizes the data into tables, before forwarding the data to the other process on Security Gateway?

A
CPD
B
PDP
C
CPM
D
PEP

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QUESTION 36

A security administrator wants to integrate a third-party system with Check Point to send identity data using a REST API. Which identity source should be used?

A
Identity Web API
B
Identity Collector
C
RADIUS Accounting
D
AD Query

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QUESTION 37

When Identity Access is enabled, policy decision and enforcement is handled by which two processes on the Security Gateway?

A
LDAP Account Unit and Identity Collector.
B
Identity Check Service (ICS) and Authorization Granting Service (AGS).
C
Policy Distribution Point (PDP) and Packet Enforcement Policy (PEP)
D
Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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QUESTION 38

What is the main benefit of Identity Awareness?

A
It allows you to configure security policy based on the source or destination network and user agent.
B
It allows you to configure security policy based user or machine identity.
C
It allows you to configure security policy based on password length. RADIUS group membership and the source operating system.
D
It allows you to configure security policy based on source network, destination network. LDAP Group membership and source operating system.

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